| ▲ | tptacek 13 hours ago | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
You can make other arguments about the connection between college and lifetime income, certainly! But they aren't the mathematically closed argument you made early, the one you preceded with "We can make this real simple". It appears --- and I'm sorry to belabor this point --- that it was "real simple" because it was based on an unconventional definition of a central tendency statistic. I'm still curious about what that definition might have been? | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | win311fwg 13 hours ago | parent [-] | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Right, we made it simple and assumed that college brought a premium, as was earlier told was the case. Therefore, in the simple model, all college graduates occupy the top earning spots. So when >50% of the earning population are college graduates then the median earner must have a college degree. Now that you're saying that in reality college graduates don't see a premium over non-college graduates and actually occupy the lowest income class then obviously the simplified model breaks. Thems the breaks when you try to simplify. A simplified model will always be just that: a simplification. It remains unclear what non-standard definition of median you are thinking of? You said you needed to share it earlier but still haven't... | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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