| ▲ | win311fwg 13 hours ago | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
Right, we made it simple and assumed that college brought a premium, as was earlier told was the case. Therefore, in the simple model, all college graduates occupy the top earning spots. So when >50% of the earning population are college graduates then the median earner must have a college degree. Now that you're saying that in reality college graduates don't see a premium over non-college graduates and actually occupy the lowest income class then obviously the simplified model breaks. Thems the breaks when you try to simplify. A simplified model will always be just that: a simplification. It remains unclear what non-standard definition of median you are thinking of? You said you needed to share it earlier but still haven't... | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | tptacek 12 hours ago | parent [-] | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
No, I'm saying that you can take someone on either side of a median income statistic and increase their income without changing the median, contrary to your claim that median income statistics prove that lower-income people can't be getting income improvement from college degrees, which, I'll admit, I'm being snarky about pointing out to you, but... still obvious? The rest of it is not an argument worth having because I don't have strong opinions about the lifetime income premium for college attendence (or the human capital vs. signaling arguments behind it). I didn't attend; I went to work right after high school. Be as mean as you want to college! | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| ||||||||||||||||||||||||||