I'll just copy part of my other comment:

As another comment pointed out this is in part due to racial majority being defaulted into the non-specific term "american". As in: most americans are white so "americans" is thought of as refering to the biggest group of americans.

And in part due to historical subjugation of those other "americans". As in: less than 80 years ago the term "americans" was used almost exclusively to refer to white americans due to systemic racism.

It is still particularly prevalent in media headlines.

I don't know why you think I would make this up, lol.

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philipallstar a day ago | parent | next [-]

> I don't know why you think I would make this up, lol.

You're in far less danger of being accused of originality than you are of regurgitating banality.

	▲	Atlas667 a day ago \| parent [-]
		Non comment. Disregarded.

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philwelch a day ago | parent | prev [-]

> I don't know why you think I would make this up

Because it's false, as I demonstrated in my other comment.

	▲	Atlas667 17 hours ago \| parent [-]
		Like I said in the other chain: What were civil rights issues about if not that "american" literally didn't apply to all of us on a constitutional/federal/state and cultural level? You seem to be fixated on pointing out that ultimate neutrality has always existed when referencing the term "american" when everything proves otherwise. And on top of that you want to say I'm biased because I'm pointing out that neutrality hasn't always existed around that term. Chill out, dude.