> I don't know why you think I would make this up

Because it's false, as I demonstrated in my other comment.

Like I said in the other chain:

What were civil rights issues about if not that "american" literally didn't apply to all of us on a constitutional/federal/state and cultural level?

You seem to be fixated on pointing out that ultimate neutrality has always existed when referencing the term "american" when everything proves otherwise.

And on top of that you want to say I'm biased because I'm pointing out that neutrality hasn't always existed around that term.

Chill out, dude.