| ▲ | _DeadFred_ 13 hours ago | |||||||
I stated above, part of a plea requires the defendant to affirm that they were not coerced into the plea, because you can't legally waive your Constitutional right to trial under coercion, you would still retain that right if coerced. But how can the Courts accept that a threat of many more years of incarceration over your head is not a threat, and you weren't coerced by that into accepting a lessor plea? Plea deals are constitutionally invalid because they coerce defendants into giving up their constitutional right to trail with the threat of the 'trial tax' (a much much longer sentence if you DO go to court and exercise your Constitutional right). | ||||||||
| ▲ | IncreasePosts 3 hours ago | parent [-] | |||||||
I've thought about this and I don't understand why we can have plea deals which are so radically different from the potential punishment if found guilty. Like, if the state thinks you did it and offers you a $1000 fine, how is it reasonable to potentially go to jail for 6 years if found guilty? The state already showed that it believed that the crime was only worth a $1000 fine. Maybe there should be a rule that whatever plea deal offered should be the maximum punishment possible if you're found guilty. | ||||||||
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