No, literally the evidence you provided does not support the 50/50 thesis, moreover, the data does show that residential reduction is a marginal - and you're probably failing to take into consideration the UK has grown by more than 10M people during that period aka this is 'per capita' - not aggregate.

This government data is must more substantial than that link, and it puts the ratio at 70% reduction in electricity due to deindustrialization.

Moreover - the OP's comment was a blatant misrepresentation (lie) - by ignoring deindustrialization, the primary factor as stated in the article (and in reality) - plus a bit of a thrown slander aka the 'Telegaph-esque' nonsense.

This is not Twitter.

This is not even controversial.

[1] https://assets.publishing.service.gov.uk/media/6aba96e8997a4...

Industrial usage fell about 100k TJ, household fell ~110k TJ since the peak.

The linked numbers are not per-capita, they are absolute.