| ▲ | gus_massa 4 days ago | ||||||||||||||||
Just for reference, the sum of all primes is infinite https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divergence_of_the_sum_of_the_r... so this result is not obvious. Anyway, I think it's weird it depends on the Riemann Hypothesis. Do you have some numerical test for intervals like sum up to 1000, up to 10000, up to 100000, up to 1000000, ... ? | |||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | jdb1729 4 days ago | parent [-] | ||||||||||||||||
Yes, see the table in Remark 7.3 on page 5, it exceeds 3.5, with growth slowing to a crawl. But the calculations mean little, sum(1/p) grows as divergent log(log(n)), so it also has the appearance of convergence on that basis. Many on math.SE argued for divergence (answers since deleted)! Although the proved upper bound is 5e14, heuristically it should be less than 4. I doubt RH is truly necessary. But even relying on RH, the exact value of the sum is elusive. | |||||||||||||||||
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