The author makes the comment about the land value tax not being able to be passed on to renters in the context of comparing it to a property tax.

If I’m understanding the argument you’re making here correctly, wouldn’t what you’re saying be equally true for a property tax?

I’m not saying you’re wrong, but I don’t think the author would agree with your point since I don’t see how your argument could be true for a land tax, but not for a property tax.