| ▲ | Espressosaurus an hour ago | ||||||||||||||||
How does this work in two party consent states? It seems nuts on the face of it. I guess they devolve liability onto the user and wash their hands of it? | |||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | bryanrasmussen an hour ago | parent | next [-] | ||||||||||||||||
it works, in an American context, because the states would have to take it to court and determine if this actually fell under the rules of making a recording. Argument for, there is no recording stored anywhere thus it does not need consent. Argument against, there is obviously a recording made. A recording is made and transmitted between devices and Apple and afterwards deleted, that this happens almost real time as the conversation does not change the fact a recording exists for some short time. Probably Argument for wins, but assume at some point the transcriptions become nearly perfect then expect it to be litigated again. | |||||||||||||||||
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| ▲ | j16sdiz an hour ago | parent | prev [-] | ||||||||||||||||
It is "not stored" "not recorded". | |||||||||||||||||