Nope; here is 2013 research about it:

https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/22527312/

And 1991:

https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/004269...

It has to do with stray light diffusing much more easily through unpigmented irises than pigmented.

And did those studies use the same methods as this one? Because this makes it look like they didn't:

> Methods: In this retrospective cohort study, which is a subgroup analysis of a large prospective trial about visual impairments in European car drivers, we included 853 persons between 20 and 80 years of age and without a history of ocular surgery or any eye disease including cataract. Subjects participated in an ophthalmological examination, grading of lens opacity, and the measurement of visual functions such as IOSL, CS, and BCVA. Dependent on iris color, participants were divided into four groups: light-blue, blue-grey, green-hazel, and brown.

> The straylight function of the human eye depends on eye color, especially at larger angles of scattering. As a potential cause for this dependence, transmission of light through the ocular wall was measured, using a psychophysical method.

Even if this paper turns out to be the "boring" science kind that refines earlier results with different methods, it would still be science.