> Of course, this is not possible.

I keep hearing conflicting answers on this and its a debate I've had with several people.

I have aphantasia based on the description here because I don't see jack.

Some people I talk to though say that they can visualize at the same fidelity as they dream at.

When I dream, I do "see" things in a way that is much more "real" than when I "imagine" them - to the point where I would basically describe it as effectively identical to seeing them.

So now I'm confused about if these few people are the exceptions or the norm, and to what extent I'm lacking something that some others have.