Really?

Why not 5% of Americans having the same average level of understanding and only 47.5% having a lower than average understanding?

What assumptions are you making, and why should they be true?

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sethammons a day ago | parent [-]

It is the same as wealth, or any dataset that has large data outliers on one side.

Average and mean are the same: normal distribution. Average higher than mean: skewed by big outliers.

Professional statistician affects the distribution of statistics knowledge like billionaires affect wealth distribution.

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defrost a day ago | parent [-]

Congrats for having a shot, sadly that doesn't answer the questions posed in the slightest.

Again, why does the GP assume that a full half are distinctly lower than "average understanding" ? Why the assumption that multiple numbers cannot share an average understanding?

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d1sxeyes 10 hours ago | parent [-]

It was a joke, you are, of course, technically correct, there’s no requirement for the mean and median to be the same.

	▲	defrost 10 hours ago \| parent [-]
		Fair point, in my time zone it was late, I was crabby, and there was a surrounding context of "bad statistics" comments. That said, If the mean and median were the same your statement would still not be always true. For more than one reason.