> 1) Would that fine print be binding?

For government, because it's in law or regulations (ministerial decisions in Europe). For large companies "You agreed to it" (you know, like you agreed to allow Verizon to sell your location data to Palantir)

The other 2 questions I don't understand. My point is that the EU AI directive makes this possible. Makes it possible in ONE direction, while prohibiting the other. AI can be used by government and large companies to spam you and deal with you, and can't be used by you without being 100% up front about that to them (ie. enabling refusal)

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RandomLensman 2 hours ago | parent [-]

1) Laws need parliament, no?

Just agreeing to it isn't necessarily enough at least in some countries.

2) What laws and sections specifically makes that possible? Are there examples of that happening?

3) Where can I find that interpretation of article 50(?)? Some other article? (To the extent that things would need to be labelled/watermarked etc.)

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spwa4 an hour ago | parent [-]

1) Laws need parliament, no?

No. Here is the list of organizations that have the power to make laws in the EU (and JUST the across-the-EU part of that list, within countries, within states, within provinces, within towns there's another list). This is referred to in legal tradition as the "Hierarchy of norms", because there is also a clear order defined.

https://eur-lex.europa.eu/EN/legal-content/glossary/eu-hiera...

	▲	RandomLensman an hour ago \| parent [-]
		I think you need to be more precise then on what you mean by "law" and differentiate there and also by what authorises that.