| ▲ | derdi 14 hours ago | |
But then what does it mean when the FT writes that that "revenue" number already accounts for the 15 billion losses? That the FT doesn't use these terms correctly either, and we can't really know what its reporting means? | ||
| ▲ | master_crab 11 hours ago | parent [-] | |
That’s the correct usage. Revenue includes gains and losses. Profit will take that number and subtract out the operational costs (salaries, market data subs, etc). | ||