? I literally said that, how am I wrong?

> You can only argue with damages from the perspective of potential profits, still not theft though.

Damages are not deprival of ownership. They're conceptually related but orthogonal

Also there was no moral judgement from my end, I just pointed out that an incorrect word is being applied. It's just not theft - by definition. But language is a fluid concept and definitions change over time. As people keep misusing it, it will eventually lose its original meaning. Which may have already happened for you, but this change hasn't been settled yet as can be seen from looking at the official definitions of the term, which as of today still mention the criteria