| ▲ | coldtea 5 hours ago | |||||||||||||
Because the analogy he makes is with Romanticism, a specific trend/movement, for which 1800 is roughly a good reference point, whereas 1600 is not. | ||||||||||||||
| ▲ | ggm 5 hours ago | parent [-] | |||||||||||||
And my point is that it's a label on a cyclical trend. But sure, he wanted to reason about romanticism specifically. He cuts off very early in the new century, and the romanticism presaged a 50year cycle of revolution and revolt against the congress of Vienna. The tide swung back and forth. | ||||||||||||||
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