| ▲ | Retric 3 hours ago | |||||||||||||
Yes. Paying the money the data is worth isn’t coercive, linking some other transaction to selling your location data is. This includes having a discount larger than what your location data is worth. IE: I’ll sell you this car for 50k, o you want it without location tracking that will be 150k. | ||||||||||||||
| ▲ | rubyfan an hour ago | parent | next [-] | |||||||||||||
I think the practice of tying the use of one product to coerce the loss of rights of your private data has some comparables (noted below). The law seems to recognize that companies coercing someone to give up money using tie-ins may be illegal but is not yet recognizing data as a monetary equivalent. Because it’s not money it’s not regulated. Isn’t it time that our data be treated as the exchange of value that it is? And the coercion should be something we are protected against? 1. abuse of monopoly power in tie-in sales. https://www.ftc.gov/advice-guidance/competition-guidance/gui... 2. Freebie marketing https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Razor-and-blades_model 3. RESPA https://www.investopedia.com/terms/r/real-estate-settlement-... | ||||||||||||||
| ▲ | s1artibartfast 3 hours ago | parent | prev [-] | |||||||||||||
If thats the standard, then I suggest people find a less polarizing word with a clearer definition. Putting the semantics aside, Who decides what it is worth and to whom? Why wouldn't a company sell a car without geodata for what it is worth? Maybe it is worth 150k to them because that is what some people will pay the maximum return price point for that package? | ||||||||||||||
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