| ▲ | moate 4 hours ago | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
It's a starting point to flag. Here's some analysis of what it is and why it's useful as a canary in the coal mine: https://www.prevuehr.com/resources/insights/adverse-impact-a... | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | dash2 3 hours ago | parent [-] | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Thanks. I read the article: > Since the 80% test does not involve probability distributions to determine whether the disparity is a “beyond chance” occurrence, it is usually not regarded as a definitive test for adverse impact. Instead, other statistically significance tests, such as the standard deviation analysis, may be used for this purpose. But then my question recurs: isn’t this a ridiculous way to measure discrimination? It’s assuming that the only thing that differs between the different ethnic applicant pools is their ethnicity, which is essentially never going to be true. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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