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kmeisthax a day ago

I think the judge was just reaching for an excuse to kill the lawsuit.

The reason why Fair Use exists is because we have a copyright law, a First Amendment, and common-law courts that are empowered to legislate from the bench[0]. That last bit is important: everything the courts rule can potentially become new law that binds the hands of future courts. This means the court needs to be careful when issuing their ruling.

They can't rule that the statute of limitations has passed, because the files were hosted continuously on a web server. If they did rule this way, then any online infringement can become unprosecutable so long as you keep the website up for 3 years before anyone notices.

They can't rule that it's de minimus. The whole photo was used.

They can't rule innocent infringement[1] because that requires specific facts that are not present in this case.

Normally in this sort of case, the courts would rule that a crime had been committed but not award any damages. Unfortunately, Congress decided that if you register your copyright, you are automatically entitled to an insane damage award. Otherwise, it would never be financially profitable to sue for copyright infringement in all but the most airtight cases, and copyright would be unenforceable.

The next available legal tool to dismiss the case is Fair Use, and that is so fact-intensive that you can get particularly arbitrary with what is and isn't binding precedent. In particular, the market usurpation factor (part C) can be adjusted to emphasize or de-emphasize the harm done to the original work. If a blogger uses a photo for a blog post with 43 views, there is no potential of market harm. If that same blogger gets a million views, then suddenly there IS a market harm and the courts will be more favorable to you.

My personal opinion is that the statutory damage award for registered copyright was a really fucking stupid idea. People who do not have a constructive[2] revenue stream should not be on the hook for damages they can't pay. If you want your photo off the blog post, that's one thing; but you shouldn't be able to demand life-ruining sums of money from legally careless bloggers.

Why? Because that's the basis of a very long-running extortion scheme that has been enabled by our copyright system. It started with the RIAA suing grandmas whose kids downloaded KaZaA, and only got worse from there, involving criminal enterprises started by lawyers who would upload fake porn to The Pirate Bay and then extort people who downloaded it. Really, there needs to be some kind of legal cutoff to immunize the ordinary man on the street from this bullshit while still allowing lawsuits against people actually involved in creative industry. But Congress hasn't bothered doing that. So the courts have to make it up as they go.

[0] You may have heard that certain other countries "don't have Fair Use". This is facially true because they aren't common-law countries, not because they don't have free speech. In civil-law countries the role of Fair Use is instead taken up by legislatively-granted exceptions to copyright.

[1] There is a specific defense to infringement called innocent infringement that the defense can use if they have evidence that they attempted to license the work in question.

[2] "Had or should have had", "known or should have known", etc. In law, a judge can coercively impute all sorts of things "constructively". You can have constructive knowledge, owe a constructive debt, etc.

RobotToaster a day ago | parent | next [-]

>You may have heard that certain other countries "don't have Fair Use". This is facially true because they aren't common-law countries

The UK is a common law country and technically doesn't have fair use. We have "fair dealing" exceptions, but these are stricter in than American fair use. This is in part because the laws originated from EU legislation which is normally written to suit Napoleonic law countries...

pbhjpbhj a day ago | parent [-]

I don't think Fair Dealing is strict because it derives from EU law - what makes you say that?

UK copyright legislation largely started with the Statute of Anne in 1810 (or thereabouts). I'm not sure we can blame the EU! Much of what we have now derives from ratification of the Berne Convention in the early part of the 20th Century. Although TRIPS also impacts things. The most recent changes to the CDPA 1988 derive from WIPO treaty, IIRC, rather than from EU law itself.

It has certainly felt like there has been undue influence of UK copyright from USA-based interests over the last few decades.

RobotToaster a day ago | parent [-]

The fair dealing part of the CDPA was modified later to implement the EU Information Society Directive.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Copyright_and_Related_Rights_R...

leephillips a day ago | parent | prev [-]

“life-ruining sums of money from legally careless bloggers” is deterrence. Don’t do the crime if you can’t .....

crote a day ago | parent [-]

So what happened to the whole "no cruel and unusual punishments" thing?

leephillips a day ago | parent [-]

These are civil penalties. I wonder if the prohibition against cruel and unusual punishments applies to the (high) statutory punitive damages. Any legal scholars want to help us out?

kmeisthax 11 hours ago | parent [-]

As far as I'm aware, the 8th Amendment does not apply here. I mean, just because the punishment is high doesn't mean it's cruel, and it's certainly not unusual, if it applies to everyone. There are certainly some defendants who would not be deterred without the ability of copyright law to generate absurdly high damage awards. And, of course, nothing legally stops a court from assigning punitive damages in a copyright case. In fact, that probably would have worked out better for the Internet age than the law the MAFIAA[1] bought.

That being said, a lot of constitutional provisions don't apply the moment you step foot in a civil court. For example, you actually can be compelled to self-incriminate, 4th Amendment be damned[0], so long as it's not a criminal proceeding. Likewise, there's caselaw stating that the 8th Amendment flat-out does not apply until the US is named as a party on the lawsuit.

On the other hand, SCOTUS has also thrown out punitive damage awards on 14th Amendment due-process clause grounds. In this case[2], we even have a math formula: punitive damages cannot exceed 10x the compensatory damages. Of course, because copyright already has very high statutory damages, we rarely even need to impute punitive damages to get billion dollar awards.

This is all dancing around another question, though: why do the damages have to fit the crime and not the person? Europe assigns scaling damages based on the defendant's ability to pay, and that would neatly solve the problem of well-pocketed copyright scofflaws that Congress attempted to fix with a sledgehammer. The problem is, American law doesn't actually do this. As far as I'm aware, it's not outright unconstitutional to scale fines to income, but given that it's unusual, I could imagine SCOTUS also finding it to be cruel. I mean, you are singling out the rich for being rich, and America was built to protect the interests of the rich.

[0] When I asked Gemma 4 what it thought of an earlier version of this post, it pedantically pointed out that the only legal compulsion civil courts can apply is an adverse inference - i.e. juries and judges in civil court are allowed to assume you're hiding evidence of guilt, whereas in criminal court they're not. I don't think this distinction matters.

[1] RIAA + MPAA = ???

[2] https://supreme.justia.com/cases/federal/us/538/408/