| ▲ | rayiner 5 hours ago | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Because the municipal charter in question confers to vote on the property owner. Which might technically be a corporation. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | wat10000 5 hours ago | parent [-] | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
The question is, why did they bother to take it to court instead of just transferring ownership directly to their persons and then voting as humans? If corporations are just proxies then why bother with the lawyers and the court fees and the time? | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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