| ▲ | LPisGood 2 hours ago | |
I’m not sure if the explanation in the second part holds water. Wouldn’t the reduction in property value be the same as the ammortized free rent? | ||
| ▲ | Arainach 2 hours ago | parent | next [-] | |
No, because the mortgage companies' valuation is based on rent and does not consider any incentives. | ||
| ▲ | netcan an hour ago | parent | prev [-] | |
No. Not if the valuations and downstream effects of valuations are formulaic, which they often are. | ||