| ▲ | vel0city 2 hours ago | ||||||||||||||||
If a user is openly going out of their way to go and install a competitor's product despite a perfectly serviceable version coming by default, how can the the one being sought out be seen as a monopoly? The competition came pre-installed! How did the user manage to install Chrome on Windows if Chrome is a monopoly, the only serviceable browser around? They copy the source code from a magazine or something? Get a floppy disk in the mail? | |||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | Dylan16807 2 hours ago | parent [-] | ||||||||||||||||
Whatever your definition of monopoly is, it's wrong. The threshold is not 100% market share. If that was the threshold no monopoly has ever existed. | |||||||||||||||||
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