| ▲ | seanhunter 3 hours ago | |||||||
It’s not intuitive, it’s intuitionist. I’m not saying that to nitpick it’s just important to make the distinction in this case because it really isn’t intuitive at all in the usual sense. Why you would use it is it’s an alternative axiomatic framework so you get different results. The analogy is in geometry if you exclude the parallel postulate but use all of the other axioms from Euclid you get hyperbolic geometry. It’s a different geometry and is a worthy subject of study. One isn’t right and the other wrong, although people get very het up about intuitionism and other alternative axiomatic frameworks in mathematics like constructivism and finitism. | ||||||||
| ▲ | BigTTYGothGF 2 hours ago | parent | next [-] | |||||||
> if you exclude the parallel postulate but use all of the other axioms from Euclid you get hyperbolic geometry No, you don't. (You need to replace the parallel postulate with a different one) | ||||||||
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| ▲ | smj-edison 2 hours ago | parent | prev [-] | |||||||
I think they called it intuitive, because I called it intuitive in my original post, so that's on me :) | ||||||||