What's the difference. Act upset or is upset the results are the same?

Some humans lack certain emotions, them telling you something, and doing something doesn't really matter if they "felt" that emotion?

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lucketone 9 hours ago | parent | next [-]

If one is unable to feel emotion X, then:

1. One has some ulterior motive for faking it.

2. One’s actions will likely diverge from emotion X. (Eventually)

If everybody believe the same lie, then it could be indistinguishable from the truth. (Until, the nature of the lie/truth become clear)

	▲	johnsmith1840 6 hours ago \| parent [-]
		Or their ulterior motive is that they don't have one and want to fit in? Meaning they would never diverge? Didn't realize my point was so philisophical lol

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cyanydeez 9 hours ago | parent | prev [-]

It's the rise of the P-zombie. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philosophical_zombie

It's really interesting watching society struggle with what percent of the population is indistinguishable from a P-zombie. There's definitely not zil, but it definitely is a segment of the population.

Do you think people are born pzombies or is there some fixed point in time, puberty, or middle aged, or around when a lot of psychological problems set in. Do we think some environmental contaminants like Lead push people towards the pzombie?

	▲	johnsmith1840 6 hours ago \| parent [-]
		Cool read! Yeah I suppose this is my point AI is the perfect P-zombie here. I was thinking of clear cases like true pychopaths on certain emotions.