I never got how sanctions, which clearly only affect civilians in any real way, and in extremely life and death ways in that, are not considered "criminal" in a broad, moral sense. Does not Iran, which has been sanctioned for forever, demonstrate this particularly clearly?

Why would it be in any state's interest to get to a situation where you would have mass revolt? Don't you think they'd want to prevent that if they could? No matter how evil they are?