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| ▲ | claythearc 2 hours ago | parent | next [-] | | There are a bunch of strategies here, but one people oft repeat is the "buy, borrow, die" approach. Where, they are kicking the can down the road, but the magic happens at the die step. When the borrower dies: Your heirs inherit your stocks, with their cost basis reset to the current price. This means that they have zero appreciation of your purchase of $RIVN at $67, despite it being at $420. They can then sell the shares, to pay the loans, and not owe capital gains, because there are no gains. Additionally, at this step cash can be extracted for no gains as well if desired. So you avoid taxes while alive by taking loans (not income), avoiding capital gains (never selling), and then gains evaporate through a stepped up basis. There are some exceptions here - estate taxes, etc with ways around them like trusts, but this is the general mechanism. Its worth noting though, that its not ironclad. In a significant downturn you can be forced to liquidate and it will hurt (see the news on Musk right after X purchase). Additionally, while people talk about this as being super popular, realize that in practice people who take advantage of these strategies also still have millions in cash flow, so its not a true borrow only $0 tax lifestyle, they will use already taxed money to manage them as well. | | |
| ▲ | jeffreyrogers 2 hours ago | parent | next [-] | | Minor nitpick. The step up in basis actually happens when you die (not when your heirs receive the assets), and your estate has to pay off creditors before distributing assets. So the debt is paid off first, then your heirs get whatever is left over. Net result is the same though. | |
| ▲ | avemg 2 hours ago | parent | prev [-] | | I'm familiar with this strategy but there's one thing about it that I don't understand: After death, the loans are an estate liability, right? Doesn't the estate need to be settled before heirs get their inheritance? If i had an outstanding $1MM loan, wouldn't the estate need to liquidate some of that $RIVN at the $67 basis in order to pay the loan? and then whatever $RIVN was left over would go to the heirs at a stepped-up basis? | | |
| ▲ | jeffreyrogers 2 hours ago | parent | next [-] | | The step up in basis happens when you die, so the estate has no capital gain. Then the debts are paid, then the heirs get whatever they're supposed to get. | | |
| ▲ | avemg 2 hours ago | parent [-] | | Ok thank you. That was the key to my misunderstanding. |
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| ▲ | claythearc 2 hours ago | parent | prev [-] | | I conflated the two, since it all happens pretty quickly, but the estate is actually the recipient of the updated basis. So the estate sells @ current price, pays the negligible difference on gains from appreciation while the estate settles, if any happened, and then passes out the rest. |
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| ▲ | throwaway667555 2 hours ago | parent | prev | next [-] | | When the cash flow from the assets exceeds interest expense, you've cashed out the assets without incurring tax on your appreciated position and you can afford to pay the interest. As for principal, debt is largely not paid back these days, especially large bespoke debt secured by liquid and well-defined assets. The debt holders (lenders) get paid back after death of the borrower or they continue rolling the position and collecting their return (interest income). The only question in the lender's mind is how much leverage to grant on the underlying assets, e.g. blue chip stocks, and what to do in a liquidity crunch when rolling. | |
| ▲ | gamerdonkey 2 hours ago | parent | prev | next [-] | | The strategy is called "Buy, Borrow, Die" https://www.theatlantic.com/economy/archive/2025/03/tax-loop... (viewable by disabling JS) | | |
| ▲ | xienze 2 hours ago | parent [-] | | What if I live for, say, decades before dying. Surely the lender expects some some amount of repayment before then. | | |
| ▲ | jeffreyrogers an hour ago | parent | next [-] | | I don't know how these specific loans are structured but in real estate it's relatively common for a loan to be interest only with a balloon payment (the principal) due some number of years in the future. So in theory you could just pay off the balloon payment with a new loan and repeat the process. | |
| ▲ | throwaway667555 2 hours ago | parent | prev [-] | | Lenders have an amount of capital that they need to invest and earn returns -- they're generally not in the business temporarily so they don't want their capital back. And when the loans are secured by hard assets, e.g. publicly traded stocks, there's little risk of default so long as the price stays up. In times of rising stock prices, there's little to no reason for a debt holder (lender) to exit their positions at maturity. Rather roll and continue taking the return (interest). |
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| ▲ | jeffreyrogers 2 hours ago | parent | prev | next [-] | | You do. I think these loans are generally used for short term liquidity. For example if you want to buy a new house before selling your old one. You'd get a loan against your assets, buy the home with the loan proceeds, sell your old home and pay off the loan. If your assets are growing faster than the interest it would also be possible to payoff the loan with a new (larger) loan, so you are still kicking the can down the road but eventually you would die and never need to pay the taxes while you were alive. I doubt this is done that often in practice, but who knows. | |
| ▲ | OkayPhysicist 2 hours ago | parent | prev | next [-] | | As mentioned in the article, death (and subsequent inheritance), solves this problem. Once you're dead, your tax situation changes significantly, and selling your assets to settle your debts is subject to estate taxes, not capital gains. | |
| ▲ | whaleofatw2022 2 hours ago | parent | prev | next [-] | | Sometimes its about the layers. I.e. what kinds of loans can be tax deductible? To be clear theres decent effort into this, you can't just do a cash-out refi on a home, but loopholes exist for those who find it worth the effort. | |
| ▲ | anon291 2 hours ago | parent | prev | next [-] | | A margin loan typically does not require any payments at all other than interest. Many loans are like this. Amortization for principal repayment is usually something you only find in personal or real estate loans | |
| ▲ | nout 2 hours ago | parent | prev [-] | | You repay with another loan. Repeat multiple times. And then you die. This is the strategy that people follow. |
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