| ▲ | peter_griffin 3 hours ago | ||||||||||||||||
>Why should a government prohibit private parties from agreeing to anything other than those 3 things? because ToS have been long used to demand unreasonable things and threaten people with expensive lawsuits. The advantage of companies losing bullying power significantly outweighs the disadvantage of less business freedom ToS are normally "contracts" (hard to even call them that) between a large corporation with very high resources for a lawsuit and an individual with very low resources. The power imbalance makes challenging ToS for the individual unfeasible in 99% of cases | |||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | stinkbeetle 2 hours ago | parent [-] | ||||||||||||||||
> because ToS have been long used to demand unreasonable things and threaten people with expensive lawsuits. The advantage of companies losing bullying power significantly outweighs the disadvantage of less business freedom Why those in particular though? The criminal law one sure that's a part of contract law already. Why the others? Why not different ones? It was just asserted that those were reasonable and no other terms are. | |||||||||||||||||
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