| ▲ | lelandbatey 6 hours ago | |||||||
No, it's because their model puts dollar values on the labor contributed by non-working adults w/r/t raising children. So in that case, it could be that 1adult1child is slightly higher because of the need to pay for childcare, while the food/insurance/clothing etc of the additional adult in 2adult1child is offset by the fact that the non-working adult will conduct childcare and thus that expense goes away. | ||||||||
| ▲ | matuszeg 4 hours ago | parent | next [-] | |||||||
But then why is the number higher for 2adult1child (1 working) when compared to 2adult1child(both working). wouldn't child raising costs get added back in once both are working? | ||||||||
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| ▲ | skulk 6 hours ago | parent | prev [-] | |||||||
right. kind of obvious in hindsight. | ||||||||