| ▲ | baxtr 3 hours ago | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Japan was leveled to the ground by 1945. What’s the excuse for not having the same GDP per capita 80 years later? The curve became exponential way too late. And only after they (partially) opened up. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | bjourne an hour ago | parent | next [-] | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Japan was an industrialized country even before WWII, China was not. Moreover, both Japan and China used protectionism to nurture domestic industries. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | energy123 3 hours ago | parent | prev [-] | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
They went from 100% communism to 90% capitalism, then had exponential growth, and we are supposed to believe the growth was because of the residual 10% communism. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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