How does that solve it? Alice buys the software, clicks "agree" so that it runs and then sells it to Bob who uses it without ever agreeing.

Somewhere deep in the legalese Alice agreed she would not do that, i.e. "non transferable license".

	▲	AnthonyMouse 43 minutes ago \| parent [-]
		Isn't that the part that would violate the first sale doctrine? Also, wouldn't that be a problem for Alice rather than Bob? Or for that matter, for the person who clicked "agree" who might not be someone who ever owned the copy and might not even be competent to enter into a contract?