| ▲ | zozbot234 3 days ago | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
The zero marginal tax only strictly applies to the very last cent the extreme top-earner is expected to earn in the tax period. The idea is that at this theoretical extreme top-end tax bracket basically no one is paying infra-marginal taxes, hence the share of the incentive effect compared to the pure revenue effect is maximized. So you'll want to ensure that this extreme top-earner is only paying in lower, infra-marginal tax brackets, which have no incentive effect on her. This cannot be done literally because of randomness and uncertainty, but the broad effect of paradoxically lowering optimal marginal rates at the top end is nonetheless real. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | littlestymaar 3 days ago | parent [-] | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
It's only real if you assume top earners have monetary incentives to work more, which is a very bold assumption in a world where the top earners don't even earn money through their work in the first place. And again, the utility of income for an individual is logarithmic with regard to their income, which means the marginal utility is the inverse function and that never stopped the top earners to want more. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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