| ▲ | terminalshort a day ago | |
But government employees obviously do not have 1A rights in their role as employees. e.g. if a government employee feels like wearing a nazi uniform to the office every day, they will be fired, even though 1A prevents the government from punishing private citizens for doing the very same. Firing the employee is not violating 1A but charging them with a crime would be. And how do you define "partisan" here? How can your job be to implement the policies set by politicians, but not be "partisan." | ||
| ▲ | elicash a day ago | parent [-] | |
It's irrelevant how I define partisan. More important is how DOJ defines it. https://www.justice.gov/jmd/political-activities This case wasn't about a worker making statements themselves. It's about compelled partisan speech by the government. | ||