| ▲ | throw-qqqqq 4 days ago | ||||||||||||||||
The median of those ten numbers is 50. If the count of observations is even, it is usually the arithmetic mean of the two mid-points, so (49+51)/2 in this case. The median does not have to be in the finite set of values. Maybe Wikipedia can explain better than I can: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Median  | |||||||||||||||||
| ▲ | sebastiennight 4 days ago | parent [-] | ||||||||||||||||
You didn't answer my second question. Yes the median in my example is $50. Thus it would be accurate to say "50% of people in that sample have $50 (or $51)". But not anything further than that middle point. Back to the original post: I'm assuming that "three months of expenses" would be roughly $6,000. The parent post had the median at $500. 1. Given the sheer number of adult Americans (hundreds of millions of observed data points), wouldn't you say it's quite likely that the two mid-points are very close to each other (eg $499.97 and $500.02)? But definitely not (-$5,500) in debt for one mid-point individual vs $6,000 in savings for the next individual (which comes out to $500 in median and "top half has $6k")? 2. In the first scenario (almost continuous curve at the midway point), how likely do you think it is that somewhere right after that $500 mid-point, there is a huge discontinuous jump to $6,000 to accomodate the idea that the rough top half of observed savers has "3 months of expenses" saved? 3. Is there any other scenario I'm not foreseeing, that can reconcile: "the median is $500" with "the top 50% have $6,000+ in savings"?  | |||||||||||||||||
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