▲ | tialaramex 2 days ago | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
Where did you see 5%? I'm not an expert (though I think I know one) but the study I'm looking at says 0.3% - hence my "vast, vast". That's 3 patients out of 1000. In that study they take cancer cells and check for HPV, get about 7% negatives which I'm guessing is what you're describing too, but they take those negatives and PCR them to figure out, well, OK, what was wrong with these cells and when you take the cells to pieces very often your assay goes oh, these instructions are HPV. So, you know, the cancer cells aren't "infected" with HPV but well the genetics are just HPV, the replication has gone haywire and tangled parts of HPV with the human cell instructions and now it's cancer. Crucially we can assume that if you don't get infected with HPV this wouldn't happen. So HPV was still causal. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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▲ | epcoa 2 days ago | parent | prev [-] | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
> Crucially we can assume that if you don't get infected with HPV this wouldn't happen. So HPV was still causal. Nope. This is literally “correlation does not equal causation” 101. Based on the 0.3% I’m gonna guess you’re (either directly or indirectly) citing a famous, 1999 paper in J Pathology (Walboomers et al). It’s outdated, missing a control *, and it’s pretty well accepted that just finding a bystander HPV DNA fragment around somewhere is not conclusive of causality. We have much more sophisticated assays of gene expression. Try looking for review articles in the last 3 to 4 years rather than 30, the prevalence of truly HPV independent cervical cancer is not precisely characterized but it’s almost certain much greater than 0.3%. https://www.mdpi.com/2076-0817/14/7/668 https://journals.lww.com/md-journal/fulltext/2024/10110/rese.... (3% to 8%) | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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