I don't think this trick would do anything - you're still conditioning a contract on consent (and it's no more necessary than before), so still don't have "freely given consent" if you wanted to rely on that basis for data processing.

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mytailorisrich a day ago | parent [-]

You're repeating a claim that is widespread but that appears nowhere in the GDPR.

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Ukv a day ago | parent [-]

> > Consent is presumed not to be freely given [...] if the performance of a contract, including the provision of a service, is dependent on the consent despite such consent not being necessary for such performance.

	▲	mytailorisrich a day ago \| parent [-]
		That's not the same as your previous comment.