For the sake of argument, let’s assume everything you said is true.

Would you agree if I reworded my statement to “ultimately, all money eventually flows to people, whether for their labor or due to their ownership of the entities receiving the money”?

Ownership is a legal concept, you could even call it fictional.

So yes, all transactions can be linked be back to individuals, if you ignore all details and make some gigantic leaps of faith... But what's the insight?

Are we just doing philosophy like in ancient Greece?