▲ | Dylan16807 6 days ago | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
> Yes, but ultimately trademarks are a consumer protection, and what matters in granting a trademark is protecting consumers from harm. Yes, protecting consumers. And people are equally consumers of something whether they pay $1 or $0. > but if there's a case that they need this trademark to protect consumers from harm, then that's your winning argument. Other than the normal argument for trademark and the evidence of use they had? If you have to show a specific argument for harm, that's way too high of a bar. > If you really are not doing commerce, trademarks are irrelevant. You can't get one, and you don't need one. Define "commerce" here. If we count competing in the market but your product happens to be $0 as commerce, then sure I can agree but this project passes the test. If a price of $0 disqualifies you from "commerce" then no way, trademarks are not irrelevant and you do still need one. Consumers need to be able to find your product and avoid imitators. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
▲ | kube-system 6 days ago | parent [-] | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
No, you absolutely don't have to price a product in order to be engaging in commerce. But you do have to engage in exchanging goods and services with somebody else. And if you're not, then you don't qualify for a trademark because trademarks are marks that you get to use when you do trade. I am not asking for the evidence of what that commerce is. I personally do not care nor do I make the judgment of what qualifies. But, if you want a trademark, you need to show the trademark office what trade you are going to do with the mark you want them to grant you exclusive use of. And if you're not going to do any trade, then you don't need to worry about it. Because you cannot infringe on a trademark without doing trade. | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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