▲ | throwaway290 3 days ago | |||||||
I'm not native English but even I know. For example when we say Ukrainian genocide we mean genocide that kills Ukrainian people. This guy said "Zionist genocide" so what does that mean? That genocide ended decades ago. Who is decepting who and how? Go ahead and unpack for us | ||||||||
▲ | roenxi 3 days ago | parent [-] | |||||||
Ah right. Well if your not a native speaker - this isn't exactly a formal rule as far as I know, but as a native speaker... Zionists are ideological people and "<Idological People> Genocide" reads like the ideologues own and are committing the genocide. Whereas Ukrainian is a denonym and "<Denonym> Genocide" reads like a genocide done to the denonym. Nazi Genocide -> Nazis did it. Jewish Genocide -> Genocide happened to the Jews. I'm not sure if that is technically how it would work in a formal linguistic sense, but that would be how I'd expect the terms to be read. Zionists can't really be genocided because Zionism isn't a race, so reading "Zionist Genocide" as happening to the Zionists is difficult. Not a reliable rule though, someone could use "genocide" that way I suppose. | ||||||||
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